“Judge Orders Roger Stone to Avoid Further Comment on Pending Trial,” The Wall Street Journal, February 22, 2019.
What does it say when a judge (who a defendant allegedly spoke about) issues a gag order? How does that square with the First Amendment?
I know the alleged speech was reprehensible, but shouldn’t it be someone other than the judge being spoken about who issues the control? Judges have done this before.
Is this just because the First Amendment only restricts Congress from passing laws?